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If one's research question is: "Does X have a causal effect on Y?", there are some obvious questions that one would ask before interpreting an observed association causally. For example, "Is there something unmeasured that affects both X and Y?". Among the most obvious of these preliminary questions is: "Does Y in fact cause X?" This would be especially salient in a cross-sectional study, which is why there is so much emphasis put on the term "prospective" in reporting designs that are NOT cross-sectional.
So if that is so painfully obvious that it would be embarassing to even mention it again, why does one read reports like this one on a daily basis? The headline is: Obese teens' brains unusually susceptible to food commercials, study finds and the summary text below the headline is: TV food commercials disproportionately stimulate the brains of overweight teenagers, including the regions that control pleasure, taste and -- most surprisingly -- the mouth, suggesting they mentally simulate unhealthy eating habits that make it difficult to lose weight later in life. The study conducted fMRI exams on 40 right-handed adolescents, 20 normal weight and 20 obese, so everything is cross-sectional. The discussion reveals an interpretation clearly in the causal direction that being obese makes your brain more susceptible to food commercials: Collectively, these findings suggest that higher-adiposity adolescents more strongly recruit oral somatomotor and gustatory regions pertinent to eating behaviors while viewing food commercials, in comparison with their lower-adiposity counterparts. How is it that none of these study authors with doctoral degrees seems to have ever wondered how these children got to be obese in the first place?
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